SPSC 2013Recruitment TestQuestion Paper

SPSC 2013 Medical Officer (Male & Female) BPS-17, Health Department (2013) — Paper Type A Paper

The official SPSC CCE 2013 Medical Officer (Male & Female) BPS-17, Health Department (2013) — Paper Type A question paper (recruitment test), set by the Sindh Public Service Commission. Every MCQ is typed out below with its correct answer marked.

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SPSC 2013 Medical Officer (Male & Female) BPS-17, Health Department (2013) — Paper Type A paper — full text

Every MCQ from the paper, with the correct answer marked in green.

Medical Officer (Male & Female) BPS-17, Health Department (2013) — Paper Type A. Pre-interview written test · Sunday 20 January 2013, 10:30 am to 12:30 pm · Maximum marks 100. 100 MCQs; each incorrect answer deducts 0.25 mark.

1Regarding corneal edema:
- A)Epithelial edema results from corneal endothelial dysfunction
- B)Sub-epithelial edema results from corneal endothelial dysfunction
- C)Stromal edema results from corneal endothelial dysfunction
- D)Sub-epithelial edema ends up in bullous keratopathy
- E)Stromal edema results from corneal suffocation
Explanation: Endothelial failure causes stromal oedema first; epithelial bullae follow later.
2All are causes of PPH except:
- A)Uterine atony
- B)Lacerations
- C)Retained placenta
- D)DIC
- E)Uterine prolapse
3The antigen presenting cell is:
- A)Neutrophil
- B)Eosinophil
- C)T-cell
- D)B-cell
430–40% of MDS patients progress to acute leukaemia; the most frequent blast phenotype encountered is:
- A)Hybrid (myelolymphoid)
- B)Erythroid
- C)Myelomonocytoid
- D)Lymphoid
- E)Erythroid & Lymphoid
Explanation: MDS transforms to AML, most often of myeloid/myelomonocytic type.
5Phantom pain of the eye:
- A)Occurs in orbital cellulitis
- B)Occurs in uveitis
- C)Is treated by ocular prosthesis
- D)Is treated by NSAIDs
- E)Arises from choroid
Explanation: As usually keyed; more than one option can be argued.
6If a pregnant woman bleeds heavily with associated abdominal cramps, the abortion is said to be:
- A)Threatened
- B)Missed
- C)Incomplete
- D)Complete
- E)Recurrent
7Malignant tumour that occurs due to atomic radiation is:
- A)Acute lymphoid leukemia
- B)Acute myeloid leukemia
- C)Lymphoma
- D)Lymphosarcoma
8Which features of chronic myelogenous leukemia distinguish it from myelofibrosis?
- A)Increased platelets and fibroblasts
- B)Decreased erythrocytes with abnormal morphology
- C)Increased leukocytes with hypercellular bone marrow
- D)Low LAP score and presence of Ph chromosome
- E)Increased LAP score & absence of Ph chromosome
9Pigmentary glaucoma:
- A)Occurs due to pigment dispersion syndrome
- B)Occurs due to occlusion of spaces of Fontana by pigment granules
- C)Occurs due to trabecular inflammation caused by pigment granules
- D)Is actually primary OAG
- E)Is actually secondary closed angle glaucoma
10Which patient would be at greatest risk of ectopic pregnancy?
- A)A healthy woman on birth control pills for longer than 18 months
- B)A woman with past history of three incidents of PID
- C)A woman with history of endometriosis
- D)A healthy woman with irregular menses
- E)A woman with past history of several UTIs
11Most common organ affected in left sided heart failure is:
- A)Lung
- B)Liver
- C)Brain
- D)Kidney
12The Kell antigen (K) is considered to be:
- A)Highly immunogenic
- B)Likely to promote an immune response in 50 percent of recipients after a single transfusion
- C)Likely to promote an immune response in 5 percent of recipients after a single transfusion
- D)Not immunogenic
- E)Unlikely to promote immune response after transfusion
Explanation: Kell is the most immunogenic antigen after RhD.
13A 68 year old man presents with sudden severe colicky abdominal pain; within three days he becomes jaundiced with high-grade fluctuating pyrexia. The most likely diagnosis is:
- A)An intrahepatic abscess
- B)Carcinoma of the head of pancreas
- C)Cirrhosis of liver
- D)Infective hepatitis
- E)Stone impacted in the common bile duct
Explanation: Charcot's triad (cholangitis).
14Which of the following does NOT apply to optic neuritis?
- A)Seen clinically as retrobulbar neuritis
- B)Seen clinically as papillitis
- C)Seen clinically as neuroretinitis
- D)Pain is not severe
- E)Vigorous and immediate treatment is required in all cases
15Regarding endometriosis:
- A)It is associated with polycystic ovarian disease
- B)It occurs in less than 50% of all fertile patients
- C)It causes powder burn lesions
- D)Danazol has no role
- E)USG is the confirmatory test for diagnosis
16Adenomyosis is the presence of endometrial tissue in the:
- A)Ovaries
- B)Bladder
- C)Fallopian tubes
- D)Pelvic peritoneum
- E)Myometrium
17The organ to which metastasis (almost) never occurs:
- A)Pituitary
- B)Spleen
- C)Adrenals
- D)Colon
- E)Prostate
Explanation: As usually keyed; more than one option can be argued.
18During surgery for a giant fibroid uterus the lower right ureter is transected. The operation of choice is:
- A)End-to-end anastomosis alone
- B)Boari's operation
- C)Trans uretero-ureterostomy
- D)Psoas hitch of bladder (with reimplantation)
- E)Anastomosis after mobilization of the kidney
19Indications for single agent chemotherapy following suction evacuation of hydatidiform mole usually include:
- A)Rise in the HCG titre
- B)A plateau of HCG titre
- C)Return of HCG titre to normal at 6 weeks after evacuation
- D)Appearance of liver metastasis
- E)Appearance of brain metastasis
Explanation: A plateau (or a rise) of hCG; liver or brain metastases need multi-agent therapy.
20Which benign tumour is most likely to be invasive (locally infiltrative)?
- A)Cystadenoma
- B)Papilloma of bladder
- C)Osteoma
- D)Haemangioma
- E)Chondroma
Explanation: As usually keyed; more than one option can be argued.
21Causes of early death after chest trauma include all except:
- A)Hypoxemia
- B)Hypovolaemia
- C)Tamponade
- D)Esophageal rupture
- E)Tension pneumothorax
22Septate uterus can give rise to all except:
- A)Recurrent abortion
- B)Menorrhagia
- C)Malpresentation
- D)Breech presentation
- E)Shoulder presentation
23A 28 year old female has a solitary neck lump moving on swallowing; frozen section shows psammoma bodies. The most likely diagnosis is:
- A)Anaplastic carcinoma
- B)Follicular carcinoma
- C)Hurthle cell carcinoma
- D)Lymphoma
- E)Papillary carcinoma
24Which ultrastructural change most likely suggests acute tubular necrosis (irreversible injury)?
- A)Clumping of nuclear chromatin
- B)Marked mitochondrial swelling
- C)Formation of myelin figures
- D)Blebs on cell membrane
- E)Presence of small phospholipid-rich amorphous densities
Explanation: Amorphous densities in mitochondria mark irreversible injury.
25Regarding ureteric injuries:
- A)Gynaecological operations like hysterectomy are associated with ureteric injuries
- B)Penetrating abdominal or back injuries are also associated with them
- C)May be caused by ureteric catheterization
- D)All of these are correct
- E)None of these
26A multiparous woman has a raised 1 cm cervical cyst that extrudes clear mucus, lined by flattened columnar or cuboidal cells. The picture is most compatible with:
- A)Herpes cervicitis
- B)Varicella infection
- C)CIN
- D)Nabothian cyst
- E)Cervical adenosis
27The most frequent neoplastic lesion of the appendix is:
- A)Adenocarcinoma
- B)Lymphosarcoma
- C)Haemangiosarcoma
- D)Carcinoid
- E)Metastatic
28In alcoholic hepatitis, irregular eosinophilic hyaline inclusions in hepatocytes (Mallory bodies) are composed of:
- A)Immunoglobulin
- B)Excess plasma proteins
- C)Pre-keratin intermediate filaments
- D)Basement membrane material
- E)Lipofuscin
29A 25 year old assault victim in respiratory distress has a sucking wound communicating with the pleural space. The single best immediate management is:
- A)Maintain an arterial line immediately
- B)Apply a sealed dressing over the wound
- C)Perform a needle thoracocentesis
- D)Place a chest tube
- E)Shift patient for a thoracotomy
Explanation: An occlusive (three-sided) dressing first, then a chest drain.
30Wrist drop results from damage to the:
- A)Median nerve
- B)Radial nerve
- C)Ulnar nerve
- D)Axillary nerve
- E)Anterior interosseous nerve
31Indications of thoracotomy in chest trauma include all but:
- A)Initial drainage of 200 cc of blood at chest tube insertion
- B)Initial drainage of 1000 cc or more of blood at chest tube insertion
- C)Continuous drainage of more than 200 cc per hour
- D)Suspicious cardiac tamponade
- E)Suspicion of major vessel or visceral injury
32Histologically, which finding would determine that an ovarian teratoma is malignant?
- A)Squamous cells
- B)All three germ cell lines
- C)Immature fetal-like cells
- D)Neural ectoderm
- E)An ovarian capsule
33The most characteristic feature of granulomatous inflammation is:
- A)Caseation necrosis
- B)Multinucleated giant cells
- C)Langhans giant cells
- D)Aggregation of epithelioid macrophages
- E)Run of lymphocytes
34A 55 year old woman has a 2.5 cm benign-appearing sigmoid polyp; flexible sigmoidoscopic excision is incomplete but benign adenomatous tissue is retrieved. The most appropriate management is:
- A)Sigmoid colostomy
- B)Sigmoid colostomy and polypectomy
- C)Segmental resection of the polyp with a 3 cm margin of colon
- D)Periodic barium enema examinations
- E)Repeated sigmoidoscopic sessions to complete removal
35Paralysis of which muscle causes "winged" scapula?
- A)Trapezius
- B)Pectoralis major
- C)Pectoralis minor
- D)Serratus anterior
- E)Deltoid
36Tuberculous peritonitis:
- A)Does not possess specific forms
- B)Is always associated with pulmonary tuberculosis
- C)Is managed surgically
- D)May arise primarily as abdominal tuberculosis
- E)Antituberculous drugs are not used
37Common cause of secondary amenorrhoea is:
- A)Polycystic ovarian syndrome
- B)Hyperprolactinemia
- C)Hypopituitarism
- D)Exercise related amenorrhea
- E)Weight related amenorrhea
38A 35 year old man has high grade fever with rusty sputum and right sided consolidation. The most accurate diagnostic test is:
- A)Blood culture
- B)Sputum gram stain
- C)Sputum culture
- D)Cold antibody titre
- E)Lung biopsy
39The typical patient with repeated attacks of biliary pancreatitis can be expected to develop:
- A)Pancreatic fibrosis
- B)Diabetes mellitus
- C)Sprue
- D)Narcotic addiction
- E)Cholangitis
Explanation: As usually keyed; more than one option can be argued.
40Heparin is important because:
- A)It acts as an anticoagulant
- B)It has the same disaccharide units as lactose
- C)It is formed in mast cells
- D)It is a heteropolysaccharide
- E)It is present in the blood
41Least likely palliative treatment for carcinoma oesophagus:
- A)Radical oesophagectomy
- B)Laser canalization
- C)Oesophageal intubation
- D)Brachytherapy
- E)Oesophageal stenting
42Adenomyosis:
- A)Is a tumour of the vagina
- B)Is growth of the endometrium in the myometrium
- C)Is also called endometriosis externa
- D)Causes amenorrhoea
- E)Causes backache
43Transmural haemorrhagic infarcts occur most often in the:
- A)Duodenum
- B)Jejunum and ileum
- C)Appendix
- D)Caecum
- E)Distal colon
44All are indications for exploration of the common bile duct at cholecystectomy except:
- A)A history of jaundice
- B)Single faceted stone in the gall bladder
- C)Multiple stones in the gallbladder
- D)Recurrent chills and fever
- E)Mucocele of the gallbladder
45A large fungating rectal mass that is an invasive malignant tumour is most likely associated with:
- A)Diverticulitis
- B)Diverticulosis
- C)Juvenile polyposis syndrome
- D)Crohn's disease
- E)Ulcerative colitis
46Carcinoma of rectum within 4 cm of the anal verge. The best management option is:
- A)Chemotherapy
- B)Abdominoperineal excision
- C)Anterior resection
- D)Radiotherapy
47Which colonic polyps are most likely to bleed?
- A)Hyperplastic polyp
- B)Peutz-Jeghers polyp
- C)Lymphoid polyp
- D)Tubular adenoma
- E)Villous adenoma
48The most common site of rib fracture is:
- A)Angle of rib
- B)Head of rib
- C)Neck of rib
- D)Costochondral junction
49The wound of laparoscopic cholecystectomy is:
- A)Clean
- B)Contaminated
- C)Clean contaminated
- D)Dirty
- E)None of these
50The commonest surgical procedure for the treatment of parotid gland tumours is:
- A)Enucleation
- B)Excision of tumours
- C)Open surgical biopsy
- D)Radical parotidectomy
- E)Superficial parotidectomy
51The most threatening complication of simple multinodular goitre is:
- A)Secondary thyrotoxicosis
- B)Carcinoma
- C)Acute respiratory obstruction
- D)Change of voice
- E)Cosmetic disfigurement
Explanation: Tracheal compression is the dangerous one; secondary thyrotoxicosis is the commonest.
52Which of the following is not one of the four histologic subtypes of Hodgkin's disease?
- A)Lymphocyte predominance
- B)Nodular sclerosis
- C)Mixed cellularity
- D)Lymphocyte depletion
- E)Leukocyte-lymphocyte dominance
53Regarding oesophageal leiomyomas, which statement is correct?
- A)The majority are diagnosed after they cause dysphagia and chest pain
- B)Biopsy is indicated at oesophagoscopy to rule out carcinoma
- C)Full-thickness elliptical excision is the preferred surgical approach
- D)Endoscopic ultrasonography is a reliable means of following leiomyomas conservatively
- E)Recurrence is minimized by wide local excision
54All of the following are complications of peptic ulcer surgery except:
- A)Duodenal stump blowout
- B)Dumping
- C)Diarrhoea
- D)Delayed gastric emptying
- E)Steatorrhoea
Explanation: As usually keyed; more than one option can be argued.
55Which life-cycle stage occurs with P. vivax but not with P. falciparum?
- A)Gametocytes
- B)Hypnozoites
- C)Schizonts
- D)Sporozoites
- E)Trophozoites
56A 26 year old diabetic woman in the first trimester has bilateral retinal haemorrhages, microaneurysms and IRMA. Which statement is true?
- A)She should have weekly ophthalmic review
- B)These features are consistent with preproliferative diabetic retinopathy
- C)She should have panretinal laser photocoagulation
- D)She should have focal laser
- E)Progression is unlikely at this stage
57A 44 year old man has 4 days of back pain, deteriorating gait, paraesthesiae in hands and feet, bilateral lower limb weakness, areflexia and urinary retention. The most likely diagnosis is:
- A)Acute poliomyelitis
- B)Brown-Sequard syndrome
- C)Guillain-Barre syndrome
- D)Lumbar canal stenosis
- E)Subacute combined degeneration
58A 45 year old woman has fever 39°C, severe myalgia, petechiae, a negative malaria film, low-normal WBC and platelets 35×10⁹/L. The most likely diagnosis is:
- A)P. vivax malaria
- B)Dengue fever
- C)Salmonella typhi
- D)Rickettsia typhi
- E)P. falciparum malaria
59A 68 year old man has a hand tremor most obvious when trying to perform an action. Disease is most likely in the:
- A)Thalamus
- B)Cerebellum
- C)Substantia nigra
- D)Spinal cord
- E)Internal capsule
60Which feature is characteristic of portal hypertension in cirrhosis?
- A)Jaundice
- B)Gynaecomastia
- C)Spider telangiectases
- D)Hepatomegaly
- E)Oesophageal varices
61A 20 year old woman has SLE. Which is a characteristic clinical feature?
- A)Raynaud's phenomenon and photosensitivity
- B)Alopecia and livedo reticularis are absent
- C)Erosive asymmetrical large joint arthritis
- D)Fibrosing alveolitis and glomerulonephritis
- E)Pericarditis and endocarditis
62A 30 year old woman has acute glomerulonephritis syndrome. Which is the best feature?
- A)Bilateral renal angle pain
- B)Hypertension and periorbital facial edema
- C)Oliguria > 800 ml and haematuria
- D)Highly selective proteinuria
- E)History of allergy with edema of lips
63A 56 year old man with polycythaemia vera has acute abdominal pain, tender hepatomegaly and high-protein ascites. The most likely diagnosis is:
- A)Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis
- B)Budd-Chiari syndrome
- C)Veno-occlusive disease
- D)Malignant liver disease
- E)Haemochromatosis
64In the treatment of thyrotoxicosis, which is true?
- A)Propranolol should not be given in atrial fibrillation
- B)Carbimazole blocks the secretion of T3 and T4
- C)Persistent suppression of TSH is an indication for surgery
- D)TSH receptor antibodies usually persist despite carbimazole
- E)Surgery is more likely to be necessary in young men than young women
Explanation: Relapse after antithyroid drugs is commoner in young men.
65A woman develops C. difficile pseudomembranous colitis after amoxicillin. The most appropriate treatment is:
- A)Ciprofloxacin
- B)Co-amoxiclav
- C)Erythromycin
- D)Metronidazole
- E)Trimethoprim
Explanation: Oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin are now preferred; of these options, metronidazole.
66A 22 year old with pigmentation, splenomegaly, Hb 8.1, MCV 58 fl and ferritin 1000 µg/L. The most appropriate management is:
- A)Blood transfusion
- B)Desferrioxamine
- C)Iron therapy
- D)Folic acid
- E)Prednisolone
Explanation: Iron overload (thalassaemia) needs chelation.
67A COPD patient presents with type II respiratory failure. The most likely change is:
- A)Metabolic acidosis
- B)Respiratory alkalosis
- C)Respiratory acidosis
- D)Metabolic alkalosis
- E)Normal acid base balance
68A 16 year old develops acute anaphylaxis after penicillin. Treatment should commence with:
- A)Inj Adrenaline
- B)Inj Chlorpheniramine
- C)Inj Hydrocortisone
- D)Saline infusion
- E)Salbutamol nebulization
69Artificial collections of water are breeding medium for:
- A)Aedes
- B)Anopheles
- C)Culex
- D)Mansonia
70The best step to interrupt transmission of amoebiasis in a community is:
- A)Filtration of drinking water
- B)Chlorination of drinking water
- C)Mass chemoprophylaxis
- D)All of these
Explanation: Amoebic cysts resist usual chlorination.
71Antigenic shift is seen in:
- A)Influenza C
- B)Influenza B
- C)Influenza A
- D)All of these
72Which vaccine must be stored in the freezer compartment?
- A)Measles
- B)Oral Polio
- C)Both A and B
- D)None of these
73The human diploid cell vaccine is used for prevention of:
- A)Rabies
- B)Varicella
- C)Hepatitis A
- D)Yellow fever
74Which viral hepatitis is transmitted by the faeco-oral route?
- A)Hepatitis A
- B)Hepatitis B
- C)Hepatitis C
- D)Hepatitis D
75Flu outbreaks that occur yearly, mainly in late fall and winter, are called:
- A)Avian flu
- B)Seasonal flu
- C)Bird flu
- D)Swine flu
76The immunization programme (EPI) in Pakistan includes:
- A)Children below 6 years
- B)Children below 5 years
- C)Children below 3 years
- D)Children below 1 year
Explanation: The routine EPI schedule is completed in the first year (later doses have been added since).
77Opportunistic infections are diseases that:
- A)Are not life threatening to people with HIV/AIDS
- B)Develop the same in healthy people as in people with HIV/AIDS
- C)Benefit from a vulnerable immune system
- D)Are favourable side effects that help fight HIV/AIDS
78WHO found the incidence of polio in Sindh (population 20 million) was 01 during 2007. What type of study was this?
- A)Cross sectional
- B)Case control
- C)Cohort
- D)Ecological
Explanation: As usually keyed; more than one option can be argued.
79Cigarette smoking is a risk factor of:
- A)Diabetes mellitus
- B)Coronary heart disease
- C)Lung cancer
- D)Lymphoma
Explanation: It is also a major risk factor for coronary heart disease.
80Jejunum differs from ileum in that it has:
- A)Wider lumen
- B)Thin wall
- C)More lymphoid tissue
- D)Never empty lumen
- E)More arterial arcades
81Structures passing through the foramen ovale, except:
- A)Lesser petrosal nerve
- B)Mandibular nerve
- C)Middle meningeal artery
- D)Accessory meningeal artery
- E)An emissary vein
Explanation: The middle meningeal artery passes through the foramen spinosum.
82Post central gyrus is present in the:
- A)Temporal lobe
- B)Parietal lobe
- C)Occipital lobe
- D)Frontal lobe
- E)Marginal lobule
83The urinary bladder is controlled by which spinal nerve roots?
- A)L3, L4
- B)L5, S1, S2
- C)S2, S3, S4
- D)T12, L1
- E)L1, L2
84A 65 year old man with a stroke denies any weakness of his paralysed left limbs. The lesion is most likely in the:
- A)Left post central gyrus
- B)Right posterior parietal cortex
- C)Posterior superior gyrus of left temporal lobe
- D)Posterior inferior gyrus of left temporal lobe
- E)None of these
85Hypoglycemia is characterized by all except:
- A)Blurring of vision
- B)Headache
- C)Dry skin
- D)Pupillary dilatation
- E)Hunger pain
Explanation: Hypoglycaemia causes sweating.
86In renal failure, which suggests chronic rather than acute failure?
- A)Microscopic hematuria
- B)Renal bone disease
- C)Pulmonary edema
- D)Metabolic acidosis
- E)Normal sized kidneys on ultrasonography
87Which virus is not associated with cancer in humans?
- A)HIV
- B)HBV
- C)HPV
- D)HZV (herpes zoster virus)
- E)EBV
88Orthopnoea can occur in each of the following except:
- A)LVF
- B)COPD
- C)Pericardial effusion
- D)Ascites
- E)Acute massive pulmonary embolism
89A pregnant woman has deep boring thigh pain with swelling, warmth and engorged superficial veins, worse on extending the foot. She is at risk of:
- A)Acute renal failure
- B)Cerebral hemorrhage
- C)Hepatic infarction
- D)Myocardial infarction
- E)Pulmonary embolus
90On bronchoalveolar lavage, which finding most suggests congestive heart failure?
- A)Ciliated bronchial epithelial cells
- B)Encapsulated pairs of small cocci
- C)Hemosiderin-laden macrophages
- D)Rhomboid-shaped crystals
- E)Single hat-shaped structures that stain with silver
91Dopamine acts as a vasodilator in which organ?
- A)Brain
- B)Stomach
- C)Kidneys
- D)Adrenal gland
- E)Intestine
92In an upper motor neuron lesion, which is least likely?
- A)Loss of superficial reflexes
- B)Loss of deep tendon reflexes
- C)Babinski's sign
- D)Clonus
- E)Spasticity
93During cardiac catheterization the normal right atrial pressure should be:
- A)15 mm Hg
- B)10 mm Hg
- C)3–8 mm Hg
- D)50 mm Hg
- E)17 mm Hg
94In chronic renal failure:
- A)Anaemia is characteristically hypochromic and microcytic
- B)Only 5% of cases are due to diabetes and hypertension
- C)Bilateral small kidneys on ultrasound are diagnostic of most causes of CRF
- D)Radiologic evidence of renal osteodystrophy excludes CRF
- E)CRF is potentially reversible
95In peptic ulcer disease:
- A)Chronic H. pylori infection is an important cause of most duodenal and gastric ulcers
- B)Rhythmicity and periodicity are not classic features
- C)Proton pump inhibitors cause impotence
- D)PPIs decrease plasma gastrin level
- E)Oral prednisolone is used to treat peptic ulcer
96Which agent is most likely to cardiovert atrial fibrillation to sinus rhythm?
- A)Sotalol
- B)Procainamide
- C)Flecainide
- D)Disopyramide
- E)Digoxin
97Death from influenza is usually due to:
- A)Encephalitis
- B)Tracheobronchitis
- C)Pneumonia
- D)Myocarditis
- E)Adrenal collapse
98PR interval is:
- A)The interval from onset of P wave to onset of QRS complex
- B)0.3 seconds
- C)0.03 to 0.06 seconds
- D)Prolonged in AV nodal rhythm
99Repolarization of the atria:
- A)Is represented by U wave
- B)Is not recorded normally
- C)Is represented by the descending limb of P wave
- D)Has no electrical property
Explanation: It is hidden within the QRS complex.
100A person's ECG has no P wave but a normal QRS and T wave. His pacemaker is located in the:
- A)SA node
- B)AV node
- C)Bundle of His
- D)Purkinje system
- E)Ventricular muscle