SPSC 2014 Dental Surgeon BPS-17, Health Department (2014) — Paper Type C Paper

Dental Surgeon BPS-17, Health Department (2014) — Paper Type C. Pre-interview written test · Monday 28 April 2014, 02:00 to 03:00 pm · Maximum marks 100. 50 MCQs (options A–E); each incorrect answer deducts half mark.

1. 1If the centre of rotation of dental forceps during extraction is not far enough apically, it would result in fracture of the:

   • A)Root apex
   • B)Crown portion
   • C)Middle third of tooth
   • D)More than 2/3rd root apex
   • E)More than 1/3 root apex

2. 2A patient has a suspected malignant ulcer involving the oral mucosa. The most probable premalignant lesion that gives rise to such malignancy is:

   • A)Leukoplakia
   • B)Erythroplakia
   • C)Pipe smoker's keratosis
   • D)Lichen planus
   • E)Chronic candidosis

   Explanation: Erythroplakia has the highest rate of malignant change.

3. 3The most important factor in long term success of a reimplanted avulsed tooth is:

   • A)Age of patient
   • B)Extra oral dry time
   • C)Splinting time
   • D)Size of apical foramen
   • E)Medium in which tooth stored

4. 4A figure-of-eight suture is placed over the socket when the size of the oroantral fistula is:

   • A)Less than 2 mm
   • B)2–6 mm
   • C)6–10 mm
   • D)10–15 mm
   • E)15–17 mm

5. 5Cystic lesion which is always associated with the apices of non-vital teeth is:

   • A)Keratocyst
   • B)Lateral periodontal cyst
   • C)Paradental cyst
   • D)Radicular cyst
   • E)Residual cyst

6. 6If a rare disorder with an early onset in life is inherited in such a way that male and female offspring are equally affected but only homozygous persons are affected, the mode of inheritance would be:

   • A)Autosomal dominant
   • B)Autosomal recessive
   • C)X-linked dominant
   • D)X-linked recessive
   • E)Mitochondrial inheritance

7. 7Substance acceptable for disinfecting dental instruments for surgery includes:

   • A)Alcohol
   • B)Chlorine compounds
   • C)Glutaraldehyde
   • D)Quaternary ammonium
   • E)Ethanol

8. 8A patient comes with gingival enlargement confined to the interdental papilla; this degree of gingival enlargement will be scored as:

   • A)Grade 0
   • B)Grade I
   • C)Grade II
   • D)Grade III
   • E)Grade IV

9. 9Aphthous ulceration of oral mucosa is characterized by:

   • A)Prodromal burning
   • B)Localized area of erythema
   • C)Involvement of buccal and labial mucosa
   • D)History of recurrent ulceration
   • E)History of painless, easily bleeding ulcers

   Explanation: Aphthae typically affect non-keratinized mucosa (buccal and labial); a recurrent history is also typical.

10. 10Air abrasion technology is used in cavity preparation for minimal removal of tooth tissue. Which powder particles are used?

    • A)Silicon oxide
    • B)Zirconium oxide
    • C)Magnesium oxide
    • D)Aluminum oxide
    • E)Silver oxide

11. 11The normal range of (opening) movement of an adult mandible is about:

    • A)30 mm
    • B)35 mm
    • C)40 mm
    • D)45 mm
    • E)50 mm

    Explanation: Normal maximum opening is roughly 40–50 mm; 50 mm is the usual keyed answer.

12. 12Investment materials are used to make a mould prior to fabrication of a metallic restoration. The main requirement of an investment material is to expand in order to:

    • A)Make a larger restoration than usual
    • B)Make a smaller restoration than usual
    • C)Make a smooth restoration
    • D)Compensate shrinkage of the alloy on cooling
    • E)Make a strong restoration

13. 13The feature most likely to be true regarding Hepatitis B is: (A) Incubation period is between 3 to 5 weeks (B) Transmission is by droplet infection (C) HBs antigen is the serological marker of active viral replication (D) 10 to 15% present with acute hepatitis (E) Carrier rate in adults is 90%

    Answer: None is strictly correct: the incubation period is 6 weeks–6 months; spread is by blood and body fluids; HBeAg (not HBsAg) marks active replication; only about 5–10% of adults become carriers.

14. 14A 50 year old complete denture wearer complains of loose ill-fitting dentures with difficulty in mastication. Examination reveals attrition of teeth and over-extended borders with reduced OVD. The best treatment option is:

    • A)Relining
    • B)Relining with rebasing
    • C)Copy / duplicate denture
    • D)Replacement dentures
    • E)Trim over-extended borders & reline with tissue conditioners

15. 15Classical pattern of extraction in Class II camouflage is:

    • A)Extraction of upper 1st premolars and lower canines
    • B)Extraction of upper 1st premolars and lower 2nd premolars
    • C)Extraction of all 2nd premolars
    • D)Extraction of upper 2nd premolars and lower 1st premolars
    • E)Extraction of all 1st molars

16. 16The most commonly used surgical procedure to set back a prognathic mandible is:

    • A)Vertical subsigmoid osteotomy
    • B)Bilateral sagittal split osteotomy
    • C)Body osteotomy
    • D)Inverted L osteotomy
    • E)C shape osteotomy

17. 17A patient has to undergo a surgical procedure for parotid carcinoma. Which nerve is most likely to be injured?

    • A)Trigeminal
    • B)Facial
    • C)Vestibulocochlear
    • D)Abducent
    • E)Glossopharyngeal

18. 18The most difficult impacted mandibular third molar to remove is:

    • A)Mesioangular
    • B)Distoangular
    • C)Vertical
    • D)Horizontal
    • E)Both vertical & mesioangular

19. 19Clinical step during which excess mercury is removed (amalgam):

    • A)Trituration
    • B)Condensation and carving
    • C)Burnishing
    • D)Polishing
    • E)Removing the matrix

20. 20A pathological condition has eroded the buccocortical plate; the incision for the flap must be placed at least ______ away from it on sound bone:

    • A)2–3 mm
    • B)5–6 mm
    • C)6–8 mm
    • D)6–10 mm
    • E)8–10 mm

21. 21During surgery for malignant parotid tumour the main trunk of the facial nerve is lacerated, resulting in paralysis of which muscle?

    • A)Masseter
    • B)Stylopharyngeus
    • C)Anterior belly of digastric
    • D)Buccinator
    • E)Tensor tympani

22. 22To maintain an existing diastema in a planned fixed prosthesis, the type of connector used is:

    • A)Rigid connector
    • B)Tenon-mortise connector
    • C)Loop connector
    • D)Split pontic connector
    • E)Cross-pin and wing connector

23. 23The best approach for diagnosis of odontogenic pain is:

    • A)Radiographic examination
    • B)Percussion
    • C)Visual examination
    • D)A step by step, sequenced examination and testing approach
    • E)Detailed history & clinical examination

24. 24Borax is added to agar impression material in order to:

    • A)Give body to the agar gel
    • B)Increase its setting reaction
    • C)Improve its taste
    • D)Improve its bonding with tray
    • E)Make a clear gel

25. 25Amount of tissue between the suture and the edge of the flap:

    • A)5 mm
    • B)4 mm
    • C)3 mm
    • D)2 mm
    • E)6 mm

26. 26Which is the more potent anti-bacterial agent for chemical control of dental plaque?

    • A)Chlorhexidine
    • B)Cetylpyridinium
    • C)Triclosan
    • D)Phenolic compound
    • E)Hydrogen peroxide

27. 27A patient has repeated dislocation of the temporomandibular joint. Restriction is normally provided by which ligament?

    • A)Temporomandibular
    • B)Stylomandibular
    • C)Styloglossus
    • D)Stylomastoid
    • E)Sphenomandibular

28. 28During an illness, a child's tooth calcification is disturbed. This will most likely affect teeth in which stage of development?

    • A)Bud
    • B)Cap
    • C)Early bell
    • D)Late bell
    • E)Morphogenic stage

    Explanation: Mineralization begins in the late bell (appositional) stage.

29. 29A biopsy specimen is immersed in 10% formalin. What should the volume of formalin be (relative to the specimen)?

    • A)15 times
    • B)10 times
    • C)20 times
    • D)30 times
    • E)50 times

30. 30Pure pulpal pain cannot be localized by the patient to the offending tooth because of the:

    • A)Crossover of nerves in the central nervous system
    • B)Lack of inflammation in periodontal ligaments
    • C)Lack of proprioceptors in the pulp
    • D)Presence of proprioceptors in periodontal ligaments
    • E)C fibers

31. 31Instrument fracture has occurred in the middle 1/3 of the root. The most appropriate treatment option is:

    • A)Retrieve it or bypass it
    • B)Hemisection
    • C)Root resection
    • D)Intentional re-implantation
    • E)Root amputation

32. 32The primary purpose of biopsy is to:

    • A)Remove the pathological lesion
    • B)Prevent the lesion from extending
    • C)Definitive diagnosis
    • D)Plan the treatment
    • E)Decrease the size of lesion

33. 33An 8 year old boy with haemophilia is admitted with bleeding after tooth extraction. The most suitable blood product to be transfused is:

    • A)Cryoprecipitate
    • B)Fresh frozen plasma
    • C)Plasma
    • D)Packed cells
    • E)Whole blood

    Explanation: Cryoprecipitate is rich in factor VIII (factor concentrate is preferred where available).

34. 34Which option gives the best information about the working length of root canals?

    • A)Patient response
    • B)Paper point determination
    • C)Radiograph and apex locator
    • D)Radiograph
    • E)Tactile sensation

35. 35The material able to initiate calcification and form a secondary dentine layer at the base of a cavity (pulp capping) is:

    • A)Zinc phosphate cement
    • B)Copper cement
    • C)Calcium hydroxide cement
    • D)Cermet
    • E)Ethoxy benzoic acid

36. 36A pre-operative periapical radiograph of a mandibular 2nd premolar shows a wide broad single canal which abruptly disappears at the middle third of the root. This indicates that:

    • A)Calcification in the lower part of the canal
    • B)The single canal divides into two separate canals
    • C)Pulp stones formation in lower part of root canal
    • D)There is severe root curvature
    • E)The single root may divide into two separate roots

37. 37A deep carious lesion reaches the pulp; the pulp responds by vasodilation and migration of white blood cells. The response is most likely initiated by cells in which zone of the pulp?

    • A)Cell free zone
    • B)Cell rich zone
    • C)Plexus of Raschkow
    • D)Odontoblast layer
    • E)Pulp core

    Explanation: Odontoblasts (and the dendritic cells among them) are the first cells to sense caries and start the inflammatory response.

38. 38Dentine adhesives are currently classified on the basis of:

    • A)Their chemistry
    • B)Their year of development
    • C)Their effect on the smear layer
    • D)Their ability to make a hybrid layer
    • E)Their ability to bond to wet or dry dentine

39. 39An 18 year old male presents with an abscess on the lower 1st molar at the buccal sulcus. Which surgical blade is used for drainage of the abscess?

    • A)Blade #11
    • B)Blade #12
    • C)Blade #15
    • D)Blade #18
    • E)Blade #20

40. 40The clinical advantage of porcelain laminate veneers over composite resin veneers is:

    • A)Colour stability and resistance to abrasion
    • B)Availability of self-curing or light-activated luting
    • C)Minimal over contouring of the treated teeth
    • D)May be used in edge to edge occlusion or class III relationships
    • E)Adapts well to primary teeth

41. 41Antagonist of Benzodiazepine is:

    • A)Flumazenil
    • B)Naloxone
    • C)Furazolidone
    • D)Naltrexone
    • E)Oxycodone

42. 42A patient starts to gag while taking an impression of the maxillary dentition. The prosthodontic management is to:

    • A)Use slow setting impression material
    • B)Lean back the head rest while taking impression
    • C)Control consistency and amount of impression material
    • D)Use anesthetic spray over palate
    • E)Seat the anterior portion of the tray first

43. 43Routes of administration of sedative drugs used in clinical paediatric dentistry are all of the following EXCEPT:

    • A)Inhalation
    • B)Intravenous
    • C)Transmucosal
    • D)Sublingual
    • E)Intramuscular

    Explanation: As usually keyed; sublingual is rarely practical in young children.

44. 44An orthodontic patient has early loss of deciduous molars. How will you maintain the space?

    • A)Robert's retractor
    • B)Canine retractor
    • C)Lingual bar (arch)
    • D)Labial bow
    • E)Screws

45. 45Caldwell-Luc procedure is used to access the maxillary sinus through the:

    • A)Malar Eminence
    • B)Canine Fossa
    • C)Tuberosity
    • D)Zygomatic Ridge
    • E)Through incisors

46. 46After removal of his left lower wisdom tooth, a patient complains of loss of taste and numbness in the left half of his tongue. Which nerve was most likely injured?

    • A)Facial nerve
    • B)Glossopharyngeal nerve
    • C)Inferior alveolar nerve
    • D)Lingual nerve
    • E)Mandibular nerve

47. 47A few months after a dental extraction, a patient develops large vegetations on his mitral and aortic valves with severe headaches. Acute bacterial endocarditis is diagnosed. Which organism most likely caused it?

    • A)Streptococci of viridans type
    • B)Staphylococcus aureus
    • C)Actinomyces
    • D)Streptococcus sanguis
    • E)Lactobacillus

    Explanation: Acute endocarditis with large vegetations is typically Staph. aureus (viridans streptococci usually cause subacute disease after dental work).

48. 48The ideal time for removal of a mandibular wisdom tooth is when:

    • A)1/3 tooth formed
    • B)1/3 root formed
    • C)1/3 crown formation
    • D)2/3 root formation
    • E)2/3 crown formation

    Explanation: Between one-third and two-thirds root formation.

49. 49A patient wearing a new bilateral removable partial denture complains of soreness in the tissue bearing area 24 hours after insertion. The most likely cause is:

    • A)Occlusal discrepancies
    • B)Over extended denture
    • C)Under extended denture
    • D)Allergy

50. 50Ideal time for a cleft lip repair is:

    • A)Intrauterine
    • B)At birth
    • C)3 months of age
    • D)18 months of age
    • E)10 days after birth

    Explanation: Rule of tens: about 10 weeks, 10 lb, Hb 10 g/dl.